Valid Certified in Logistics, Transportation and Distribution CLTD Exam Questions

Vendor APICS
Exam Code CLTD
Full Exam Name Certified in Logistics, Transportation and Distribution
Certification Name Certified in Logistics, Transportation and Distribution
Technology

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Latest and Most Accurate APICS CLTD Exam Questions:

Version: 7.0
Question: 1

Which of the following shipment modes is the most prone to packaging and product damage?

A. Air
B. Truck
C. Water
D. Rail

Answer: C

Question: 2

When importing goods such as fruit and produce into the United States (U.S.), which government
agency is responsible for protecting agriculture from harmful pests and diseases?

A. Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS)
B. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
C. US Customs and Border Protection (CBP)
D. Farm Service Agency (FSA)

Answer: C

Question: 3

Under what circumstances should management generally consider utilizing qualitative forecasting
techniques?

A. When real-time data flow is available
B. When historic data is both clear and relatively stable
C. When developing strategic-level forecasts
D. When demand is dependent on bill of material (BOM) calculations

Answer: B

Question: 4

A carrier’s costs are driven by equipment movement rather than shipment weight Which of the
following rates would be most appropriate for the carrier to utilize in charging its customers?

A. Incentive rates
B. Any-quantity rates
C. Freight all kind (FAK) rates
D. Per-car and per-truckload rates

Answer: C

Question: 5

A customer is looking to purchase product from a company. Which of the following outputs of
outbound order management would the customer consider primary?

A. Order cycle time
B. Logistics operations responsiveness
C. Postsale logistics support
D. Product availability

Answer: B

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Valid Nokia Networks NCM_20002021610 Exam Questions

Vendor Nokia
Exam Code NCM_20002021610
Full Exam Name NCSS SDM ONE NDS OaM-TSH-16.0
Certification Name Nokia Networks
Technology

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Latest and Most Accurate Nokia NCM_20002021610 Exam Questions:

Version: 7.0
Question: 1

What is a hanging reference?

A. A situation where a particular DN is present on two BEDSAs.
B. A situation where the IMSI/MSISDN alias of a subscriber exists but the actual subscriber data is
missing.
C. situation where a reference to DN exists in the RDSA, but the DN itself is missing in the BEDSA.
D. A situation where a DN is present in the BEDSA but missing in the RDSA.

Answer: A

Question: 2

Which of the following is a way to retrieve the queries/updates processed per sec by a RD5/BDS
node?

A. With command ‘ndsLoadStats’ as sdfrun user.
B. With command ‘nds loadStats’ as sdfrun user.
C. From af03_stats_log under /opt/sdf/log.
D. From the file load_stats_log.xml under /opt/sdf/log/.

Answer: B

Question: 3

What should be upgraded first – OneNDS AEP or the application Front End?

A. Both can be upgraded together.
B. OneNDS AEP should be upgraded first followed by the FE.
C. FE should be upgraded first followed by the AEP.
D. It does not matter in which order the upgrade is done.

Answer: A

Question: 4

How is the housekeeping of log files managed on RDS/BDS nodes?

A. With the script tidy.files.sh.
B. By the process ALMOG.
C. It is the responsibility of ADM to perform housekeeping.
D. Manually.

Answer: C

Question: 5

Which of the following is NOT true with respect to Emergency backup?

A. EMCY backup has to be taken manually via ADM GUI when needed, daily backup is taken every
day on the system at a pre-determined time.
B. EMCY backup is written in the path /opt/sdf/backup/emergency-backup.
C. EMCY backup is not subject to housekeeping (not automatically deleted till the next EMCY backup
is taken).
D. EMCY backup is a terminology used for normal daily backup taken during EMCY situations.

Answer: A

Question: 6

How can we do mass provisioning via PGW without generating triggers?

A. This is not possible – provisioning always generates triggers.
B. Mass provisioning never generates triggers.
C. By using the DONOT_TRIGGER option in the SPML request.
D. By enabling a special setting on the PGW just before the request execution is started.

Answer: D

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Valid Agile Scrum ASM Exam Questions

Vendor Exin
Exam Code ASM
Full Exam Name Agile Scrum Master
Certification Name Agile Scrum
Technology

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Latest and Most Accurate Exin ASM Exam Questions:

Version: 8.0
Question: 1

Your team uses Story Points to estimate User stories.
Halfway through a Sprint, you are not seeing the progress you expected. The Team feels some Stories
are not estimated correctly, when compared to other Stories.
How should you address this?

A. Complete incomplete Stories
B. Increase or re-estimate Velocity
C. Re-estimate all small Stories
D. Switch to using Ideal days

Answer: A

Question: 2

Why is a Product Owner not allowed to define the workload of the Development Team for a new
Sprint?

A. This conflicts with the principle of Self-Management of the Development Team.
B. The Product Owner does not know the velocity of the Development Team.
C. The Scrum Master is responsible for the velocity of the Development Team.
D. The Scrum Master and the Product Owner must agree on the workload of the Development Team.

Answer: A

Question: 3

What is one of the most difficult challenges you face when transitioning your software development
team to Scrum?

A. Introducing certain technical practices
B. Team members may already have their hands full
C. Too rapid improvements are possible

Answer: B

Question: 4

Your organization found that the Product Owner is consistently under more pressure than the
developments and other participants in the project.
What is common solution for that?

A. Compiling a list with Product Owner tasks
B. Rotating the Scrum Master role
C. Using a Product Owner team

Answer: A

Question: 5

A Scrum Team suggests to have a project with 3 Sprints of 2 weeks, while the customer suggests 1
Sprint of 6 weeks.
What is the greatest advantage of having 3 Sprints of 2 weeks?

A. The customer has to invest fewer time.
B. The team can inspect and adapt 2 times.
C. The team delivers more Story Points.

Answer: C

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Valid Oracle Cloud 1Z0-986 Exam Questions

Vendor Oracle
Exam Code 1Z0-986
Full Exam Name Oracle Inventory Cloud 2017 Implementation Essentials
Certification Name Oracle Cloud
Technology Oracle Inventory Cloud

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Latest and Most Accurate Oracle 1Z0-986 Exam Questions:

Version: 8.1
Question: 1

Identify the availability type that is applicable for the item quantities maintained in a unit of measure
different from the primary unit of measure and is available for various transactions.

A. On Hand
B. Secondary On-hand Quantity
C. available
D. Reserved
E. Secondary Available Quantity

Answer: C

Question: 2

You set up an Item organization and an inventory organization as part of your customor’s
requirement.
Your customer has, by mistake, performed a receipt transaction in the Item organization Instead of
the inventory organization. How will you rectify the error?

A. Perform a return of item and receive the item again in the correct organization.
B. Perform a correct receipt transaction and receive the item in the correct organization.
C. Perform a new receipt in the correct organization and retain the stock in Item organization
because it does not affect any other operation.
D. It is not possible to receive item in the item organization.

Answer: C

Question: 3

An inventory transaction is imported to the system through an FBDI template.
Which transaction state denotes that an inventory transaction is created in the Oracle Cloud
Inventory Management application?

A. Created
B. New
C. Validated
D. Deferred
E. Staged

Answer: C

Question: 4

Your customer is a very large organization spanning across multiple countries. Their legal
requirements, Human Resource Policies, and Functional Currencies for ledger are different for each
country. Your customer wants to maintain 10 different companies in the system.
Which combination meets this requirement?

A. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own ledger with common legal entity across
all divisions
B. 10 Enterprises, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger
C. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger
D. 10 Enterprises, 1 Division, where each division has 10 legal entities and 1 ledger

Answer: C

Question: 5

Your organization performs a restock via a transfer order between inventory organizations, using the
following parameters tor processing:
Transfer Type: In-transit transfer type
Receipt Routing: Standard
Transfer Order Required: Yes
During the process, the receiving organization wants to make a change to the transfer order line.
After which fulfillment stage will they no longer be able to change the transfer order?

A. Ship Confirm
B. Awaiting Receiving
C. Awaiting Fulfillment
D. Closed
E. Awaiting Billing

Answer: A

Question: 6

Your customer wants to transfer material from facility A to facility B. They are using the
interorganization transfer to perform the transaction in the system. Their requirement is “whenever
material is transferred from their facility A to facility B, facility B needs to pay 5% additional amount
to the current Item cost.”
Which task must be set up to accomplish this requirement?

A. Manage Cost Plus Pricing
B. Manage Interorganization Markup
C. Manage Cost Organization Relationships
D. Manage Transfer Pricing Rules
E. Manage Organization Relationships

Answer: B

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Valid Oracle Cloud 1Z0-967 Exam Questions

Vendor Oracle
Exam Code 1Z0-967
Full Exam Name Oracle Absence Management Cloud 2017 Implementation Essentials
Certification Name Oracle Cloud
Technology Cloud management

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Version: 8.1
Question: 1

Which statement is true about absence patterns?

A. You can modify the content of an absence pattern using the task “Manage Absence Patterns.”
B. Absence patterns help to visualize the trend or pattern of absence entries for a worker.
C. Absence patterns control the fields that appear in the Manage Absence Types setup page.
D. “Sickness” is one of the available absence patterns.

Answer: C

Question: 2

Which three are true statements about Absence and Payroll integration?

A. The Absence Element Template creates all of the attributes required to process absences through
payroll.
B. The options available for configuration vary depending on the legislation chosen when creating
absence plans.
C. The setup required in payroll may vary depending on payroll localization.
D. The options available for configuration are the same for all the legislations when creating absence
plans.

Answer: A,B,C

Question: 3

A worker is scheduled to work from Monday to Friday. As an HR administrator, you receive a call from
the worker on Friday evening 16-Jun-2017, that they are on vacation from 17-Jun-2017 (Saturday)
and will be back at work on 26-Jun-2017 (Monday). The absence type for vacation has no duration
formula or plans attached and the duration is measured in Days. There is a calendar exception on 23-
Jun-2017 (Friday).
What should be the start date, end date, and the duration of this absence record if the “Schedule
nonworking days” is set to “Not enabled”?

A. Start Date: 19-Jun-2017End Date: 22-Jun-2017Duration: 4
B. Start Date: 17-Jun-2017End Date: 25-Jun-2017Duration: 8
C. Start Date: 19-Jun-2017End Date: 25-Jun-2017Duration: 4
D. Start Date: 17-Jun-2017End Date: 26-Jun-2017Duration: 10
E. Start Date: 19-Jun-2017End Date: 26-Jun-2017Duration: 5
F. Start Date: 17-Jun-2017End Date: 25-Jun-2017Duration: 9

Answer: E

Question: 4

A customer requires that their employees enter their vacation/holiday with some period restrictions:
the absence record can be entered only 3 months before the system day and 2 months in advance
based on system day. Administrators and managers entering the vacation on behalf of employees
won’t have this restriction.
Which configuration should you use to implement these requirements?

A. 1) Create an absence type using a generic pattern.2) Enable administrative and employee
updates.3) Create an eligibility formula with the logic required and add it to the absence type.
B. 1) Create an absence type using a generic pattern.2) Enable administrative, manager, and
employee updates.3) Define Absence start date validation according to the requirements.4) Enable
Absence start date validation for employee self-service transaction.
C. 1) Create an absence type using a generic pattern.2) Enable administrative, manager, and
employee updates.3) Create an eligibility formula with the logic required and add it to the absence
type.
D. 1) Create an absence type using a generic pattern.2) Enable administrative, manager, and
employee updates.3) Define Absence start date validation according to the requirements.4) Enable
Absence start date validation for employees, managers, and administrators.

Answer: B

Question: 5

When an absence gets approved before its start date, what status does it change to?

A. In Progress
B. Completed
C. Scheduled
D. Reviewed
E. Saved
F. Accepted

Answer: A

Question: 6

If you want to modify the workers’ payments when a certification requirement has passed its due
date, what two rules can you select when you create the absence certification?

A. Override
B. Reevaluate
C. Revise
D. Stop Payments
E. Adjust
F. Retract

Answer: B,C

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Valid Elastic Cloud Storage (ECS) DES-1B31 Exam Questions

Vendor Dell EMC
Exam Code DES-1B31
Full Exam Name Elastic Cloud Storage (ECS) Systems Administrator
Certification Name Elastic Cloud Storage (ECS)
Technology

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

What is the minimum number of nodes required to configure an ECS storage pool?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Answer: B

Question: 2

An organization is planning to integrate many S3 client applications with ECS. The applications are
using
virtual host style addressing for bucket identification.
What configuration should the storage administrator use?

A. Apply the DNS host record and create the needed base URL on ECS
Make the needed changes to the S3 client configuration file
B. Apply the DNS wild card record and the host record for the load balancer
Install the needed SSL certificate on the load balancer
C. Apply the DNS wild card record and the host record for the load balancer
Create the needed base URL on ECS
D. Apply the DNS wild card record and the host record for the load balancer
Install the needed SSL certificate on the ECS nodes

Answer: C

Question: 3

What is the difference between S3 authentication signature version 2 and S3 authentication
signature version
4?

A. Version 2 uses a shared secret and access key ID
Version 4 uses the date/region algorithm
B. Version 2 uses HMAC algorithm
Version 4 uses the credentials scope algorithm
C. Version 2 uses a namespace based signature
Version 4 uses HMAC algorithm
D. Version 2 uses the secret key to sign the request
Version 4 uses a signing key

Answer: B

Question: 4

A storage administrator is trying to create a new bucket using s3curl.pl. They use a URL pointing to
their load balancer. The SSL connection is terminated on the load balancer.
What port number should be used at the command line?

A. 9020
B. 9021
C. 9023
D. 9025

Answer: A

Question: 5

A storage administrator enquires about ECS access to S3, NFSv3, and HDFS. What should be your
response?

A. ECS offers simultaneous access to S3, NFSv3, and HDFS
B. ECS offers access to S3, NFSv3, and HDFS but not simultaneously
C. ECS offers access to S3 and accesses NFSv3 and HDFS via third-party tools
D. ECS offers simultaneous access to S3 only

Answer: A

Question: 6

Which tool is used for Application Cliplist generation?

A. JCenteraVerify
B. CUA
C. JCASScript
D. CenteraExerciser

Answer: A

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Valid Microsoft Certified Professional AZ-100 Exam Questions

Vendor Microsoft
Exam Code AZ-100
Full Exam Name Microsoft Azure Infrastructure and Deployment
Certification Name Microsoft Certified Professional
Technology Microsoft Azure

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

Which blade should you instruct the finance department auditors to use?

A. invoices
B. partner information
C. cost analysis
D. External services

Answer: A

Question: 2

Which blade should you instruct the finance department auditors to use?

A. Partner information
B. Overview
C. Payment methods
D. Invoices

Answer: D

Question: 3

You need to prepare the environment to meet the authentication requirements.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Azure Active Directory (AD) Identity Protection and an Azure policy
B. a Recovery Services vault and a backup policy
C. an Azure Key Vault and an access policy
D. an Azure Storage account and an access policy

Answer: BD

Question: 4

You need to define a custom domain name for Azure AD to support the planned infrastructure.
Which domain name should you use?

A. Join the client computers in the Miami office to Azure AD.
B. Add http://autologon.microsoftazuread-sso.com to the intranet zone of each client computer in the
Miami office.
C. Allow inbound TCP port 8080 to the domain controllers in the Miami office.
D. Install Azure AD Connect on a server in the Miami office and enable Pass-through Authentication
E. Install the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) role on a domain controller in the Miami
office.

Answer: BD

Question: 5

You need to resolve the Active Directory issue.
What should you do?

A. From Active Directory Users and Computers, select the user accounts, and then modify the User
Principal
Name value.
B. Run idfix.exe, and then use the Edit action.
C. From Active Directory Domains and Trusts, modify the list of UPN suffixes.
D. From Azure AD Connect, modify the outbound synchronization rule.

Answer: B

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Valid Network Security Consultant PCNSC Exam Questions

Vendor Paloalto Networks
Exam Code PCNSC
Full Exam Name Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Consultant
Certification Name Network Security Consultant
Technology

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Version: 7.0
Question: 1

A session in the Traffic log is reporting the application as “incomplete”
What does “incomplete” mean?

A. The three-way TCP handshake did not complete.
B. Data was received but wan instantly discarded because of a Deny policy was applied before App ID
could be applied.
C. The three-way TCP handshake was observed, but the application could not be identified.
D. The traffic is coming across UDP, and the application could not be identified.

Answer: A

Question: 2

Refer to the exhibit.
A web server in the DMZ is being mapped to a public address through DNAT.
Which Security policy rule will allow traffic to flow to the web server?

A. Untrust (any) to Untrust (10. 1.1. 100), web browsing – Allow
B. Untrust (any) to Untrust (1. 1. 1. 100), web browsing – Allow
C. Untrust (any) to DMZ (1. 1. 1. 100), web browsing – Allow
D. Untrust (any) to DMZ (10. 1. 1. 100), web browsing – Allow

Answer: B

Question: 3

Which version of Global Protect supports split tunneling based on destination domain, client process,
and HTTP/HTTPs video streaming application?

A. Glovbalprotect version 4.0 with PAn-OS 8.0
B. Glovbalprotect version 4.1 with PAn-OS 8.1
C. Glovbalprotect version 4.0 with PAn-OS 8.1
D. Glovbalprotect version 4.1 with PAn-OS 8.0

Answer: C

Question: 4

A firewall administrator has been asked to configure a Palo Alto Networks NGFW to prevent against
compromised hosts trying to phone-number or bacon out to eternal command-and-control (C2)
servers.
Which Security Profile type will prevent these behaviors?

A. Vulnerability Protection
B. Antivirus
C. Wildfire
D. Anti-Spyware

Answer: D

Question: 5

An administrator has users accessing network resources through Citrix XenApp 7 .x. Which User-ID
mapping solution will map multiple mat who using Citrix to connect to the network and access
resources?

A. Client Probing
B. Globa1Protect
C. Terminal Services agent
D. Syslog Monitoring

Answer: C

Question: 6

A speed/duplex negotiation mismatch is between the Palo Alto Networks management port and the
switch it connect.
How would an administrator configure the interface to IGbps?

A. set deviceconfig system speed-duplex 10Gbps-full-duplex
B. set deviceconfig interface speed-duplex 1Gbs–full-duplex
C. set deviceconfig interface speed-duplex 1Gbs–half-duplex
D. set deviceconfig system speed-duplex 1Gbs–half-duplex.

Answer: D

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Valid IBM Analytics Platform C2090-616 Exam Questions

Vendor IBM
Exam Code C2090-616
Full Exam Name DB2 11.1 Fundamentals for LUW
Certification Name IBM Analytics Platform
Technology

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

You are asked to provide a recommendation for the appropriate DB2 edition for a new application.
The application is characterized by long, complex queries that select a subset of columns and often
perform grouping and aggregation. The initial database size is estimated at 5 TB, with growth of
about 100 GB per year. Keep data size on disk to a minimum is a priority?
Which of the following editions would be best meet the described needs?

A. DB2 Express-C
B. DB2 Enterprise Server Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D. DB2 Advanced Enterprise Server Edition

Answer: D

Question: 2

Which of the following editions of DB2 include support for Federation with Oracle database?

A. DB2 Express-C
B. DB2 Developer Edition
C. DB2 Enterprise Server Edition
D. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition

Answer: C

Question: 3

Which three facilities are used to control authorization in DB2?

A. privileges, db2ssh, LBAC credentials
B. privileges, authority levels, certificates
C. db2ssh, trusted contexts, authority levels
D. privileges, authority levels, LBAC credentials

Answer: D

Question: 4

Which database object can be locked explicitly?

A. Row
B. View
C. Index
D. Table

Answer: D

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Valid Storage Solutions HPE0-J55 Exam Questions

Vendor HP
Exam Code HPE0-J55
Full Exam Name Building HPE Storage Solutions
Certification Name Storage Solutions
Technology

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HPE0-J55 exam questions, HPE0-J55 PDF dumps; HPE0-J55 exam dumps:: HPE0-J55 Dumps (60 Q&A) (New Questions Are 100% Available! Also Free Practice Test Software!)

Latest and Most Accurate HPE0-J55 Exam Questions:

Version: 8.0
Question: 1

What is an advantage of a meshed FC SAN topology when compared to a cascaded topology?

A. faster firmware upgrade procedures
B. large number of available switch ports
C. multiple paths for internal fabric resiliency
D. cost efficiency

Answer: C

Question: 2

Which component shifts processing of the communications protocol tasks (TCP/IP) from the server
processor to the Network Interface Card (NIC), lowering CPU overhead and use?

A. TCP Offload Engine
B. GBIC
C. network switch
D. software iSCSI initiator

Answer: A

Question: 3

A customer is experiencing high latency while reading data from their HPE 3PAR 8200 storage array.
What should you propose as the most cost-effective way to increase read performance?

A. Increase the controller read cache.
B. Add magnetic disks to the current CPG.
C. Add SSDs for Adaptive Flash Cache.
D. Upgrade the controller CPUs and memory.

Answer: C

Question: 4

What is the main difference between the FC and FCoE stack?

A. The higher layers of the FC stack are replaced by TCP/IP packets.
B. The lower layers of the FC stack are replaced by lossless Ethernet.
C. FCoE requires Layer 3 Ethernet switches.
D. Zoning is not supported in FCoE networks

Answer: B

Question: 5

A customer requests a new storage array with the following features:
VMware virtualization integration
two sites with asynchronous replication
support for mixed mainstream workload
virtual server consolidation
automatic monitoring for available hotfixes
Which product should you present?

A. HPE 3PAR StoreServ
B. HPE StoreEasy
C. HPE StoreOnce
D. HPE Nimble

Answer: D

Question: 6

A customer needs to implement a VDI solution for 300 users. They need hardware assisted
deduplication and compression, and integrated data protection.
Which part of the HPE storage strategy should you position?

A. Hyper-converged
B. Composable
C. Converged
D. Traditional

Answer: A

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